ITIL Foundation v4 Practice Questions with Explanations

Correct answer: A

Target resolution times (also called response times or SLAs) in incident management are fundamentally about setting and communicating expectations to users about how quickly their issues will be addressed. They must be agreed upon with stakeholders, documented in service level agreements, and clearly communicated so users understand what service level to expect. This manages expectations and provides transparency around incident handling.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. While customer satisfaction is a goal, the primary purpose of target resolution times is setting expectations, not measuring happiness after the fact.
• C. Target times are about communication and expectation-setting, not about ensuring predictable technical responses to incidents.
• D. Target resolution times relate to incident response, not to proactive risk reduction for service failures.

Correct answer: C

Service requests that can be fulfilled without additional approvals should be handled this way to streamline the fulfillment workflow. By removing unnecessary approval steps for pre-approved, low-risk, or routine requests, the process becomes faster and more efficient, reducing delays and improving service delivery speed.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Accounting for spending is a financial control concern, not the primary reason to bypass approvals for certain requests.
• B. Information security requirements should still be met; bypassing approvals doesn't address security compliance.
• D. While efficiency may help set expectations, the direct purpose of removing approvals is workflow streamlining, not expectation-setting.

Correct answer: C

Service management is defined as a set of specialized organizational capabilities for enabling value for customers in the form of services. It encompasses the practices, processes, and organizational structures needed to deliver services effectively. This is the core definition from ITIL framework.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. A service offering is what is offered to customers, not the organizational capability itself.
• B. Service provision is the act of delivering services, not the broader set of capabilities.
• D. Service consumption refers to customers using services, not the organizational capabilities to deliver them.

Correct answer: D

Service provision is the actual delivery and enablement of services to users. It is through the service provision practice that users are given access to systems and services. Service provision represents the execution of making services available and functional for consumption.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. A service requirement identifies what is needed, not what grants access.
• B. A service agreement defines terms and conditions, not the mechanism that provides actual access.
• C. Service consumption is the act of using services after access is granted, not the granting of access itself.

Correct answer: C

Low impact incidents should be resolved efficiently to reduce the resources required for their handling. This allows the incident management practice to allocate limited resources more effectively-using lightweight processes for low-impact issues while reserving full processes for high-impact incidents. This is resource optimization, not about skipping logging or priority ordering.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. All incidents should be logged for audit, tracking, and continuous improvement purposes, regardless of impact level.
• B. The incident management practice should use different processes and approaches based on incident impact and urgency to optimize resource use.
• D. Incidents should be prioritized by impact and urgency, not resolved in order of lowest impact first.

Correct answer: B

Each value chain activity uses different combinations of practices to convert inputs into outputs. The service value chain is composed of six activities (plan, improve, engage, design & transition, obtain/build, deliver & support), and each combines various ITIL practices in different ways to transform inputs into valuable outputs for the organization.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. The service value chain converts demand (value) into supply/delivery, not the reverse.
• C. Value chain activities combine internal practices and capabilities; they don't necessarily identify requirements for external suppliers.
• D. Value streams describe sequences of activities within the value chain; the value chain itself operates between providers and consumers more broadly.

Correct answer: A

The ITIL service value system describes how all the components and activities of an organization work together to facilitate value creation through services. It encompasses practices, governance, organizational structure, technology, information, and culture-all integrated to show how value is created and delivered.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. The guiding principles are high-level philosophies and values, not a description of how components work together operationally.
• C. The four dimensions address people, partners, processes, and products but don't specifically describe how components work together systematically.
• D. A service relationship describes the connection between provider and consumer, not how organizational components facilitate value creation.

Correct answer: B

Problem management involves identifying and managing the root causes of incidents and issues that occur after a service has been deployed. It specifically deals with vulnerabilities and defects discovered post-implementation that were not caught during design or transition phases, working to prevent recurrence through permanent solutions.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Service request management handles routine requests for services and access, not vulnerability management.
• C. Change control manages approved changes to services, but problem management specifically addresses root cause analysis of discovered issues.
• D. Service level management focuses on monitoring and reporting against agreed service levels, not managing discovered vulnerabilities.

Correct answer: A

In the 'start where you are' guiding principle, measurement should always be used to support direct observation, not replace it. Direct observation provides qualitative context and understanding, while measurements provide quantitative data. Together, they give a complete picture of the current state. Measurement complements observation rather than substituting for it or being inherently more accurate.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. Measurement should support observation, not replace it entirely.
• C. Measured data alone is not always more accurate without contextual observation.
• D. The act of measuring can introduce bias and doesn't always positively impact results.

Correct answer: C

Service level management is the ITIL practice responsible for performing service reviews to ensure that services continue to meet the needs of the organization. It establishes, maintains, and reviews service level targets and ensures alignment between service performance and business requirements.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Service desk handles incident requests and inquiries, not strategic service reviews.
• B. Service request management processes routine service requests, not organizational alignment reviews.
• D. Service configuration management manages configuration items, not service review and alignment.

Correct answer: A

The 'partners and suppliers' dimension of service management specifically addresses the level of integration and formality involved in relationships between organizations. This includes how organizations collaborate, define contracts, establish governance, and manage dependencies with external and internal partners.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. This describes the 'processes and workflows' dimension, not partners and suppliers.
• C. This describes the 'information and technology' dimension, not partners and suppliers.
• D. This describes the 'people, skills and competencies' dimension, not partners and suppliers.

Correct answer: B

Release management is the ITIL practice that makes new services and service changes available for use. It coordinates and controls the movement of releases to production environments, ensuring that new services or updates are properly packaged, tested, and deployed.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Change enablement manages organizational change and stakeholder adoption, not service availability.
• C. Deployment management is concerned with technical deployment processes, but release management controls when services become available.
• D. IT asset management tracks and manages IT assets throughout their lifecycle, not service availability.

Correct answer: B

Performing baseline assessments is the activity that contributes to the 'where are we now?' step of the continual improvement model. Baseline assessments establish the current state, measure existing conditions, and provide the foundation for determining what improvements are needed and measuring progress.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Executing improvement actions occurs in the 'what improvements should we make?' and implementation phases, not the assessment phase.
• C. Defining the improvement plan comes after assessment and is part of 'what improvements should we make?' not the current state evaluation.
• D. Understanding the business mission relates to context-setting but is not the specific activity for assessing current state.

Correct answer: B

The 'focus on value' guiding principle considers the importance of customer loyalty. This principle emphasizes that every activity should create value for customers and stakeholders, and by consistently delivering value, organizations build customer loyalty and sustainable relationships.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Progress iteratively with feedback focuses on iterative delivery and feedback loops, not customer loyalty.
• C. Optimize and automate focuses on efficiency and automation of processes, not customer loyalty.
• D. Start where you are focuses on assessing current state and building from that foundation, not customer loyalty.

Correct answer: D

A key recommendation of 'think and work holistically' is to use the four dimensions of service management to ensure coordination of all aspects of an improvement initiative. The four dimensions (organizations and people, information and technology, partners and suppliers, and processes and workflows) provide a holistic framework for managing improvements comprehensively.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. This describes aspects of continual improvement management but is not the core recommendation of thinking holistically.
• B. This describes the 'progress iteratively with feedback' principle, breaking work into smaller pieces.
• C. This relates to simplification but is not the primary recommendation of the holistic thinking principle.

Correct answer: D

Continual improvement is a shared responsibility across the entire organization. Everyone in the organization, from frontline staff to executives, is responsible for some aspects of identifying, proposing, and implementing improvements. This distributed accountability drives a culture of continuous improvement.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. While improvements may be tracked, insisting on a single register is too prescriptive and not a core principle.
• B. Continual improvement should be distributed across teams and departments, not centralized in a single team.
• C. Continual improvement should interact extensively with other practices to identify improvement opportunities across the organization.

Correct answer: A

Automation handles repetitive, low-level tasks such as password resets, ticket routing, and basic troubleshooting, freeing service desk staff to focus on more complex issues and improving user experience. This is a core benefit of automation in IT service management.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. Automation reduces phone contact by handling routine requests through self-service and automated responses, not increasing it.
• C. Geographic dispersion capability relates to remote work technology, not specifically to automation's impact on service desk operations.
• D. Centralization is unrelated to automation; automation enables both distributed and centralized models.

Correct answer: B

In ITIL terminology, the service desk represents the service provider as the single point of contact for users. The service desk acts on behalf of the entire service provider organization, making 'service provider' the correct answer rather than individual components.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Service consumer refers to the user or customer receiving the service, not the organization providing it.
• C. While 'customer' might seem related, ITIL specifically uses 'service provider' to describe the organization delivering services.
• D. Supplier is an external party in the supply chain, not the entity the service desk represents.

Correct answer: A

Customer engagement in service level management involves actively listening to and understanding what service consumers do, their business needs, and how technology supports their work. This understanding drives appropriate service level agreements and targets.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. Operational metrics measure service desk performance data like response times, not what consumers' work involves.
• C. Business metrics measure business impact and outcomes, not the investigative aspect of understanding user needs.
• D. Customer feedback is typically collected after service delivery, not the proactive discovery of how technology helps their work.

Correct answer: A

The guiding principle of 'progress iteratively with feedback' emphasizes continuous cycles of development, testing, and refinement. This approach enables earlier detection of problems and failures, allowing for quicker correction before they escalate into major issues.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. Standardization results from mature, established practices, not from iterative feedback cycles.
• C. Understanding customer value perception is more directly related to customer engagement than to iterative progress cycles.
• D. Understanding current state and reuse relates to baseline assessment and strategy, not the specific outcome of iterative feedback.

Correct answer: D

'Fit for purpose' means a service does what it is intended to do and delivers the desired outcomes. Utility is defined as the functionality and features that enable the consumer's objectives-directly measuring whether the service serves its intended purpose.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Availability measures uptime and accessibility, aspects of warranty rather than whether the service meets its intended purpose.
• B. Warranty assures that the service will meet certain conditions like availability and performance, but doesn't measure actual purpose fit.
• C. Outcome describes results achieved, but utility specifically addresses whether the service has the capability to deliver those results.

Correct answer: A

Identifying consumer roles clarifies who does what in the service relationship, enabling the service provider to appropriately engage, communicate, and manage expectations with different stakeholders. This structured understanding supports effective stakeholder management.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. Shared expectations come from clear communication and agreement processes, not solely from identifying roles.
• C. Identifying roles does not remove constraints; constraints remain but may be better understood and managed.
• D. Common value definition emerges from engagement and negotiation, not directly from role identification alone.

Correct answer: C

The service value chain processes external inputs-primarily customer requirements and needs-along with organizational capabilities to create value. Customer requirements represent what consumers ask for and need from the service.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. The 'improve' activity is internal to the value chain, not an external input.
• B. An overall plan is developed internally by the organization, not an external input from outside the organization.
• D. Feedback loops are part of the improvement cycle within the organization, not external inputs.

Correct answer: D

Warranty in service management assures that a service will meet specific conditions and requirements such as availability, capacity, performance, and security. It represents the guarantee that non-functional requirements and operational characteristics will be maintained.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Outcomes describe the benefits and results delivered, not the assurance conditions.
• B. Value is the combination of utility and warranty, not the specific term for meeting technical requirements.
• C. Utility addresses functionality and features, not whether performance and security requirements are met.

Correct answer: A

Incident management's core purpose is to restore normal service operations as quickly as possible after an unplanned interruption. This minimizes negative impact on the business and users. The practice focuses on rapid response and resolution rather than prevention or root cause analysis, which distinguishes it from problem management.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. This describes service request management, which captures demand for service requests and incident resolution requests.
• C. This describes problem management, which identifies causes of incidents to prevent recurrence, not the incident management practice itself.
• D. This describes service level management, which focuses on maintaining agreed service quality standards rather than handling incidents.

Correct answer: A

An incident is specifically defined in ITIL as an unplanned interruption to a service or reduction in the quality of a service. This definition directly matches option A and is fundamental to incident management practice.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. A problem is the underlying cause of one or more incidents, not the interruption itself.
• C. A change is a planned modification to IT services or infrastructure, not an unplanned interruption.
• D. An event is a notification or alert about something that has occurred, but not necessarily an unplanned service interruption.

Correct answer: C

Relationship management is the ITIL practice designed to establish and nurture strategic and tactical links between the organization and its stakeholders. It manages communication and connections at multiple organizational levels to support service delivery and business objectives.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Supplier management focuses on managing external suppliers and vendors, not the broader stakeholder relationships at strategic and tactical levels.
• B. Change control assesses and authorizes changes to services and infrastructure, not stakeholder relationship establishment.
• D. Service desk is the point of contact for users to report incidents and requests, not a practice for establishing organizational stakeholder relationships.

Correct answer: B

The guiding principle of 'collaborate and promote visibility' specifically addresses reducing resistance to improvement by increasing collaboration and visibility throughout the improvement initiative. This transparency and involvement help stakeholders understand and support the improvement, thereby reducing resistance.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Restricting information increases opacity and actually increases resistance rather than reducing it.
• C. Involving customers only after planning is complete contradicts the principle of collaboration and visibility, which requires engagement throughout.
• D. Engaging every stakeholder in the same way ignores the reality that different stakeholder groups may need tailored communication approaches.

Correct answer: B

An organization is the entity that varies in size and complexity, uses functions to achieve its objectives, and operates within defined environments. This definition encompasses the structure and operational approach of different organizational types.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. A risk is a potential negative outcome, not an entity that uses functions to achieve objectives.
• C. A practice is a set of organizational resources designed for performing work or achieving objectives; it does not vary in size and complexity in the same structural way an organization does.
• D. An outcome is a result or benefit, not an entity with size, complexity, and functions.

Correct answer: C

Change control is the practice responsible for assessing and authorizing any addition, modification, or removal of anything that could affect services. It ensures that changes are evaluated for impact and formally approved before implementation.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Deployment management focuses on moving new or changed services into the live environment, not assessing and authorizing changes.
• B. Release management packages and deploys changes into production, but change control is responsible for the assessment and authorization step.
• D. Service configuration management maintains information about service components and their relationships, but does not authorize changes.

Correct answer: A

Information security management is the ITIL practice with a core purpose of managing risks to confidentiality, integrity, and availability of information and services. These three elements (CIA triad) form the foundation of information security objectives.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. Continual improvement focuses on improving the organization's services and practices over time, not specifically managing security risks.
• C. Monitoring and event management detects and responds to events in the IT environment, but does not specifically address confidentiality, integrity, and availability risks.
• D. Service level management ensures agreed service quality standards are met, not specifically managing information security risks.

Correct answer: C

Collaboration between teams is most effective for solving incidents quickly because it enables knowledge sharing, parallel problem-solving efforts, and reduces communication delays. When teams work together across silos, they leverage diverse expertise to identify root causes and solutions faster.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Target resolution times are goals but do not themselves help solve incidents more quickly; they are metrics to measure performance.
• B. Escalating all incidents to support teams creates bottlenecks and delays rather than accelerating resolution.
• D. While procedural steps support consistency, they do not address the speed of incident resolution as effectively as actual collaboration between teams with different expertise.

Correct answer: A

In problem management, a workaround can be documented as soon as a problem has been logged. While analysis and prioritization are important steps, they are not prerequisites for documenting a workaround. Once a problem is logged into the system, if a workaround is identified, it should be documented immediately to help users and prevent further incidents. This aligns with best practice of providing relief to users as quickly as possible, even before the root cause is fully analyzed.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. Prioritization is not required before documenting a workaround; workarounds can provide immediate value once a problem is logged.
• C. Full analysis is not necessary to document a workaround; an identified workaround can be shared with users immediately after problem logging.
• D. Resolution of the root cause is unnecessary for documenting a workaround; workarounds provide interim relief before permanent resolution.

Correct answer: B

Prioritization of problems based on the risk they pose is a core activity of problem management. This practice focuses on identifying root causes and preventing incidents, which requires assessing and prioritizing problems according to their business impact and risk level. Option A describes incident management, Option C involves change management authorization, and Option D pertains to incident management response times.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Restoration of normal service is an incident management activity, not problem management.
• C. Authorization of changes belongs to change enablement, not problem management.
• D. Meeting customer expectations for incident resolution is an incident management responsibility, not problem management.

Correct answer: D

The service desk practice is most likely to benefit from chatbots. Chatbots are ideal for handling routine inquiries, logging incidents and service requests, providing first-level support, and offering self-service capabilities to users. The service desk is the primary point of contact for users and handles high volumes of similar queries that chatbots can efficiently manage. The other practices are more strategic or analytical in nature and less suited to chatbot interaction.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Service level management involves negotiating and monitoring service agreements, not typically suited to chatbot interaction.
• B. Change enablement requires human judgment and authorization; chatbots are not appropriate for this practice.
• C. Continual improvement requires analysis and strategic decision-making, not suited to chatbot automation.

Correct answer: A

Service level agreements (SLAs) define the required performance outcomes and expectations for services. SLAs document the specific commitments made to customers regarding service availability, response times, quality metrics, and other performance standards. Service requests are individual requests for service, service components are parts of services, and service offerings are packages of services, but none of these define the required performance outcomes in the way SLAs do.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. Service requests are individual requests from users for specific services or actions, not definitions of performance outcomes.
• C. Service components are the constituent parts of services, not where performance outcomes are defined.
• D. Service offerings describe what services are available, but performance outcomes are detailed in SLAs.

Correct answer: A

The Plan activity of the value chain ensures a shared understanding of the current status and required direction for all products and services. This activity establishes strategic direction, aligns organizational efforts, and defines the vision for how services will evolve. The Improve activity focuses on continuous improvement, Design and transition handles development and implementation, and Deliver and support focuses on operational service provision, none of which are primarily about establishing shared understanding of direction.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. The Improve activity focuses on implementing improvements, not on establishing shared understanding of direction.
• C. Design and transition handles service creation and implementation, not shared understanding of current status and direction.
• D. Deliver and support is about operational service provision and support, not strategic direction setting.

Correct answer: B

Supplier management is the practice with the explicit purpose of ensuring that the organization's suppliers and their performance are managed appropriately to support the provision of seamless, quality products and services. This practice encompasses supplier selection, performance monitoring, relationship management, and contract management. Release management handles software releases, service management is a broader domain, and relationship management is broader than just supplier interactions.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Release management focuses on deploying software releases, not managing external suppliers.
• C. Service management is the broader domain encompassing multiple practices; supplier management is a specific practice within it.
• D. Relationship management is broader than supplier management and covers all organizational relationships, not just suppliers.

Correct answer: A

Incident management and service request management interact the most with the service desk practice. The service desk is the primary interface for logging both incidents (unplanned service interruptions) and service requests (planned user requests for services). These three practices work closely together in a coordinated workflow, with the service desk capturing and triaging incidents and service requests, then passing them to the respective management practices. The other options include practices that interact less directly with the service desk.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. While service request management interacts heavily with the service desk, deployment management does not.
• C. Deployment management and change enablement are not the practices that interact most with the service desk.
• D. While change enablement has some interaction, incident management is more directly involved than change enablement.

Correct answer: C

Providing good-quality updates when expected is a core activity of incident management. Keeping users informed of progress toward resolution is a key responsibility during incident handling. Option A describes continual improvement, Option B relates to service level management, and Option D pertains to service request management's focus on automation. Incident management prioritizes communication and timely updates to affected users throughout the incident lifecycle.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Assessing improvement opportunities is an activity of the continual improvement practice, not incident management.
• B. Performing service reviews with customers is an activity of service level management, not incident management.
• D. Automating service requests is a service request management activity, not incident management.

Correct answer: B

In ITIL context, a user is defined as a role that uses services. This is the standard terminology used in service management to describe any entity that consumes or interacts with IT services. While organizations and teams may contain users, and suppliers may provide services, the most precise definition is that a user is a role.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. An organization is a larger entity that may contain multiple users and roles, not the definition of a user itself.
• C. A team is a group of people, but a user is specifically a role, which is more granular and precise.
• D. A supplier provides services but is not a user; users consume services.

Correct answer: B

Change enablement focuses on ensuring that changes are properly managed and that risks are assessed before implementation. Assessing risks properly is a core purpose of change enablement to prevent adverse impacts on services. The other options relate to different practices: making services available is service transition, recording changes is IT asset management, and lifecycle planning is asset management.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Making services available is part of service transition, not change enablement.
• C. Recording and reporting changes of state relates to IT asset management, not change enablement.
• D. Planning and managing asset lifecycles is the purpose of IT asset management practice, not change enablement.

Correct answer: D

Making business cases for improvement action is a core activity within continual improvement, as it involves justifying and planning improvements based on organizational value. Identifying incident causes (option A) belongs to incident management, authorizing changes (option B) is part of change enablement, and logging incidents (option C) is part of incident management, not continual improvement.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Identifying causes of incidents and recommending improvements is part of incident management and problem management, not continual improvement.
• B. Authorizing changes is a responsibility of change enablement practice, not continual improvement.
• C. Logging and managing incidents is part of incident management practice, not continual improvement.

Correct answer: C

The continual improvement model progresses through seven steps, with 'Take action' being the step where the improvement plan is actually implemented. The other steps represent different phases: 'What is the vision?' establishes goals, 'How do we get there?' creates the plan, and 'Did we get there?' evaluates outcomes. Implementation occurs in the action phase.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. This step defines the vision and direction for improvement, not implementation.
• B. This step involves planning how to achieve improvements, not implementing them.
• D. This step evaluates whether objectives were met, occurring after implementation.

Correct answer: C

A standard change is a pre-approved change with low risk and repeatable nature. Installing software in response to a service request exemplifies this-it's routine, authorized in advance, and low-risk. Option B involves a critical security patch requiring urgent review, option A is authorization not implementation, and option D is a reactive response to a major incident requiring full change control.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Review and authorization is the process for changes, not an example of a standard change itself.
• B. Critical security patches in response to vendor issues require urgent evaluation and elevated authorization, not standard change treatment.
• D. Replacing components in response to major incidents requires full change control and assessment, not standard change procedures.

Correct answer: B

ITIL best practices recommend automating service requests and their fulfillment as much as possible to improve efficiency, consistency, and speed of delivery. Automation should be leveraged across both the request intake and fulfillment stages. Unautomated requests are not reclassified as incidents or problems (which have different purposes), and service desk staff should work with automation, not without it.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Service requests that cannot be automated are still handled as service requests, not reclassified as incidents.
• C. Service requests that cannot be automated remain service requests; they are not converted to problems.
• D. Automation should be utilized by service desk staff to enhance their effectiveness, not avoided entirely.

Correct answer: B

The service value chain can act as an operating model for an organization, providing a structured framework for how the organization delivers value through services. The four dimensions are organizational elements to consider, the guiding principles are philosophies to follow, and continual improvement is an ongoing activity, but only the service value chain serves as a comprehensive operating model framework.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. The four dimensions are elements to address in service management, not an operating model structure.
• C. The ITIL guiding principles are foundational philosophies and approaches, not an operating model framework.
• D. Continual improvement is an ongoing practice and activity, not an operating model for the organization.

Correct answer: A

Service level management recommends using event-based surveys to gather customer feedback at natural touchpoints when services are delivered or issues resolved. This timing captures authentic customer perception tied to specific service experiences. Change enablement, service request management, and problem management may gather feedback but do not specifically recommend event-based surveys as part of their practice.

Why the other options are wrong:

• B. Change enablement focuses on managing changes and assessing risks, not customer feedback collection.
• C. Service request management handles fulfilling requests, not specifically gathering customer feedback through event-based surveys.
• D. Problem management focuses on identifying root causes and preventing recurrence, not implementing event-based survey feedback collection.

Correct answer: D

Change authorities are assigned based on the type of change and the change model being used (normal, standard, or emergency). Different change models require different authorization levels and authorities. Change authorities are not only for emergency changes, are not assigned per individual change deployment, and are not only for normal changes-they apply across all change types according to the established model.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Change authorities are required for all types of changes, not just emergency changes.
• B. Change authorities are assigned to change models and types, not individually for each deployment.
• C. Change authorities are required for emergency and other change types, not only normal changes.

Correct answer: C

Incident management specifically focuses on responding to and resolving service interruptions to restore normal service as quickly as possible, thereby reducing negative impact on customers and users. While other practices support service satisfaction, incident management is directly designed to minimize the disruption caused by service interruptions.

Why the other options are wrong:

• A. Service request management handles fulfillment of new requests, not recovery from interruptions.
• B. Service level management defines targets but does not directly manage the interruptions themselves.
• D. Change enablement supports implementation of changes but does not address existing service interruptions.