Microsoft SC-200 Practice Questions with Explanations

Free Microsoft SC-200 practice questions. 50 of them, each with the correct answer, a full explanation, and the reason every other option is wrong. These are real questions from the SC-200 exam, not paraphrases, and every explanation is written out rather than just marking the right letter.

They are drawn from the same bank as the full SC-200 pack, which has 462 questions in total.

Get the full SC-200 question bank (462 questions) →

SC-200 practice questions

Question 1

You need to receive a security alert when a user attempts to sign in from a location that was never used by the other users in your organization to sign in. Which anomaly detection policy should you use?

  • A. Impossible travel
  • B. Activity from anonymous IP addresses
  • C. Activity from infrequent country
  • D. Malware detection
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: C

Activity from infrequent country detects when a user signs in from a location/country that is not typical for that user or uncommon across the organization. This is the policy designed to alert on sign-ins from geographically unusual locations that haven't been seen before in your tenant.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Impossible travel detects when a user travels between distant locations in an impossibly short time period, not about locations never used by other users.
  • B. Activity from anonymous IP addresses detects sign-ins from known anonymous proxies or VPNs, not about location frequency within the organization.
  • D. Malware detection identifies malicious software, not sign-in location anomalies.

Question 2

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Microsoft Defender for Office 365. You have Microsoft SharePoint Online sites that contain sensitive documents. The documents contain customer account numbers that each consists of 32 alphanumeric characters. You need to create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy to protect the sensitive documents. What should you use to detect which documents are sensitive?

  • A. SharePoint search
  • B. a hunting query in Microsoft 365 Defender
  • C. Azure Information Protection
  • D. RegEx pattern matching
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: D

RegEx pattern matching is the correct method to detect documents containing 32- character alphanumeric patterns (customer account numbers) in DLP policies. DLP uses regex patterns to identify and classify sensitive content for protection rules.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. SharePoint search is a discovery tool but not the mechanism DLP uses to detect sensitive patterns.
  • B. Hunting queries in Microsoft 365 Defender are for threat investigation, not for DLP policy creation.
  • C. Azure Information Protection is a labeling and classification solution, not the detection method used within DLP policies for pattern matching.

Question 3

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are configuring Microsoft Defender for Identity integration with Active Directory. From the Microsoft Defender for identity portal, you need to configure several accounts for attackers to exploit. Solution: From Entity tags, you add the accounts as Honeytoken accounts. Does this meet the goal?

  • A. Yes
  • B. No
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

Yes, configuring accounts as Honeytoken accounts in the Entity tags section of Microsoft Defender for Identity portal is the correct solution for setting up decoy accounts that attackers will attempt to exploit. Honeytokens are designed to be attractive targets that generate alerts when compromised.

Question 4

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are configuring Microsoft Defender for Identity integration with Active Directory. From the Microsoft Defender for identity portal, you need to configure several accounts for attackers to exploit. Solution: From Azure AD Identity Protection, you configure the sign-in risk policy. Does this meet the goal?

  • A. Yes
  • B. No
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

No, configuring sign-in risk policy in Azure AD Identity Protection does not meet the goal. Sign-in risk policies respond to detected risky sign-ins but do not configure accounts for attackers to exploit. This is a reactive detection mechanism, not an offensive honeypot configuration.

Question 5

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are configuring Microsoft Defender for Identity integration with Active Directory. From the Microsoft Defender for identity portal, you need to configure several accounts for attackers to exploit. Solution: You add the accounts to an Active Directory group and add the group as a Sensitive group. Does this meet the goal?

  • A. Yes
  • B. No
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

No, marking an Active Directory group as Sensitive does not configure accounts for attackers to exploit. Sensitive groups designation protects existing important accounts from being compromised, but does not create honeypot accounts designed to attract and detect attackers.

Question 6

You implement Safe Attachments policies in Microsoft Defender for Office 365. Users report that email messages containing attachments take longer than expected to be received. You need to reduce the amount of time it takes to deliver messages that contain attachments without compromising security. The attachments must be scanned for malware, and any messages that contain malware must be blocked. What should you configure in the Safe Attachments policies?

  • A. Dynamic Delivery
  • B. Replace
  • C. Block and Enable redirect
  • D. Monitor and Enable redirect
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

Dynamic Delivery reduces message delivery delays by delivering the message immediately with a placeholder for attachments while they are being scanned in the background. Once scanning completes, the actual attachments are added. This maintains malware protection while improving user experience and delivery speed.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. Replace action substitutes attachments with text warnings but doesn't address delivery speed.
  • C. Block and Enable redirect prevents delivery entirely until scanning completes, increasing delay.
  • D. Monitor and Enable redirect provides monitoring but doesn't reduce delivery time.

Question 7

You receive a security bulletin about a potential attack that uses an image file. You need to create an indicator of compromise (IoC) in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint to prevent the attack. Which indicator type should you use?

  • A. a URL/domain indicator that has Action set to Alert only
  • B. a URL/domain indicator that has Action set to Alert and block
  • C. a file hash indicator that has Action set to Alert and block
  • D. a certificate indicator that has Action set to Alert and block
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: C

When dealing with a potential attack using an image file, a file hash indicator is the appropriate choice. File hash indicators allow detection and blocking of specific malicious files based on their cryptographic hash, which is ideal for image files. The Action should be set to 'Alert and block' to both detect and prevent the malicious image from executing. URL/domain indicators are used for web-based threats, and certificate indicators are for SSL/TLS certificate-based threats, neither of which apply to image file attacks.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. URL/domain indicators are for web threats, not image files.
  • B. URL/domain indicators do not apply to image file-based attacks.
  • D. Certificate indicators are for SSL/TLS threats, not image file exploits.

Question 8

Your company has a single office in Istanbul and a Microsoft 365 subscription. The company plans to use conditional access policies to enforce multi-factor authentication (MFA). You need to enforce MFA for all users who work remotely. What should you include in the solution?

  • A. a fraud alert
  • B. a user risk policy
  • C. a named location
  • D. a sign-in user policy
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: C

To enforce MFA specifically for remote workers while not requiring it for office workers in Istanbul, a named location should be created. A named location defines trusted IP ranges or locations; by creating a named location for the Istanbul office and excluding it from the MFA requirement, users in that office will not need MFA, while all remote workers will be required to use MFA. This is the proper use of named locations in conditional access policies.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Fraud alerts are for detecting suspicious authentication patterns, not for location- based conditional access.
  • B. User risk policies evaluate user behavior over time, not geographic location.
  • D. Sign-in user policies are not the correct mechanism for enforcing MFA based on location.

Question 9

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are configuring Microsoft Defender for Identity integration with Active Directory. From the Microsoft Defender for identity portal, you need to configure several accounts for attackers to exploit. Solution: You add each account as a Sensitive account. Does this meet the goal?

  • A. Yes
  • B. No
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

The goal is to configure accounts for attackers to exploit, which means identifying high- value targets that attackers would prioritize. Simply marking accounts as 'Sensitive' does not configure them for exploitation detection-it only flags them for monitoring. To truly configure accounts that attackers would target, you need to set up honeypot accounts or decoys that actively detect attack attempts. Marking sensitive accounts only provides enhanced monitoring; it does not set up accounts as bait for attackers to exploit.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Adding accounts as Sensitive only monitors them; it does not configure them as targets for attackers to exploit.

Question 10

You have a Microsoft 365 tenant that uses Microsoft Exchange Online and Microsoft Defender for Office 365. What should you use to identify whether zero-hour auto purge (ZAP) moved an email message from the mailbox of a user?

  • A. the Threat Protection Status report in Microsoft Defender for Office 365
  • B. the mailbox audit log in Exchange
  • C. the Safe Attachments file types report in Microsoft Defender for Office 365
  • D. the mail flow report in Exchange
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

The Threat Protection Status report in Microsoft Defender for Office 365 is specifically designed to show actions taken by the service, including zero-hour auto purge (ZAP) activities. This report displays when emails are moved, deleted, or quarantined by ZAP and other protection mechanisms. The mailbox audit log tracks user actions, not service actions; Safe Attachments reports focus on attachment verdicts; and mail flow reports track message routing, not threat remediation actions.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. Mailbox audit logs track user actions, not automatic service actions like ZAP.
  • C. Safe Attachments reports show file verdicts, not ZAP movements.
  • D. Mail flow reports track message routing, not threat remediation actions.

Question 11

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that contains 1,000 Windows 10 devices. The devices have Microsoft Office 365 installed. You need to mitigate the following device threats: • Microsoft Excel macros that download scripts from untrusted websites • Users that open executable attachments in Microsoft Outlook • Outlook rules and forms exploits What should you use?

  • A. Microsoft Defender Antivirus
  • B. attack surface reduction rules in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint
  • C. Windows Defender Firewall
  • D. adaptive application control in Azure Defender
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

Attack surface reduction (ASR) rules in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint are specifically designed to block the types of threats described: Excel macros downloading scripts, executable attachments in Outlook, and Outlook rules/forms exploits. ASR rules provide granular control over dangerous behaviors and application behaviors without requiring full application blocking. Microsoft Defender Antivirus provides basic malware detection but not behavioral blocking; Windows Defender Firewall controls network traffic; and Azure Defender adaptive application control is for server environments, not Office 365 client threats.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Antivirus alone does not provide specific behavioral blocking for Office exploits.
  • C. Windows Firewall controls network access, not Office macro or attachment execution.
  • D. Adaptive application control is for Azure Defender on servers, not Office 365 desktop threats.

Question 12

You have a third-party security information and event management (SIEM) solution. You need to ensure that the SIEM solution can generate alerts for Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) sign-events in near real time. What should you do to route events to the SIEM solution?

  • A. Create an Azure Sentinel workspace that has a Security Events connector.
  • B. Configure the Diagnostics settings in Azure AD to stream to an event hub.
  • C. Create an Azure Sentinel workspace that has an Azure Active Directory connector.
  • D. Configure the Diagnostics settings in Azure AD to archive to a storage account.
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

To route Azure AD sign-in events to a third-party SIEM solution in near real time, you must configure Diagnostics settings in Azure AD to stream events to an Event Hub. An Event Hub provides real-time streaming capabilities that allow external systems to consume events immediately. This is the standard integration pattern for third-party SIEM solutions requiring near real-time event delivery.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Azure Sentinel with Security Events connector is for Microsoft security events, not for routing to third-party SIEM solutions.
  • C. Azure Sentinel with Azure AD connector is a Microsoft solution, not suitable for third- party SIEM integration.
  • D. Archiving to storage account provides batch processing, not near real-time alert generation.

Question 13

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that uses Microsoft SharePoint Online. You delete users from the subscription. You need to be notified if the deleted users downloaded numerous documents from SharePoint Online sites during the month before their accounts were deleted. What should you use?

  • A. a file policy in Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps
  • B. an access review policy
  • C. an alert policy in Microsoft Defender for Office 365
  • D. an insider risk policy
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: D

Insider risk management policies are specifically designed to detect and alert on suspicious user activities including data exfiltration patterns such as unusual document downloads before account deletion. This feature can retroactively analyze user activities from the past month and flag concerning download patterns by deleted users, making it the appropriate solution for this scenario.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. File policies in Defender for Cloud Apps focus on file-level detection but are not optimized for historical analysis of deleted user activities.
  • B. Access review policies are for governance and compliance reviews, not for detecting unusual download behaviors.
  • C. Alert policies in Defender for Office 365 are more focused on email threats and phishing rather than SharePoint document activity patterns.

Question 14

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that has Microsoft 365 Defender enabled. You need to identify all the changes made to sensitivity labels during the past seven days. What should you use?

  • A. the Incidents blade of the Microsoft 365 Defender portal
  • B. the Alerts settings on the Data Loss Prevention blade of the Microsoft 365 compliance center
  • C. Activity explorer in the Microsoft 365 compliance center
  • D. the Explorer settings on the Email & collaboration blade of the Microsoft 365 Defender portal
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: C

Activity Explorer in the Microsoft 365 compliance center is the dedicated tool for reviewing detailed audit logs of activities performed on information protection objects, including all changes made to sensitivity labels over a specific time period such as the past seven days. It provides searchable and filterable audit records for compliance and investigation purposes.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. The Incidents blade in Defender portal focuses on security incidents, not sensitivity label configuration changes.
  • B. DLP alert settings are for configuring alert policies, not for reviewing historical changes to labels.
  • D. Explorer settings on the Email & collaboration blade focus on email and collaboration threats, not label modifications.

Question 15

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Microsoft 365 Defender. You need to identify all the entities affected by an incident. Which tab should you use in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal?

  • A. Investigations
  • B. Devices
  • C. Evidence and Response
  • D. Alerts
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: C

The Evidence and Response tab within an incident details page in Microsoft 365 Defender portal displays all entities affected by an incident, including devices, users, emails, and other affected assets. This tab provides a comprehensive view of the incident's scope and impact across all affected entities.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Investigations tab shows investigation details but is not the primary location for viewing all affected entities.
  • B. Devices tab shows device-specific information, not all entity types affected by an incident.
  • D. Alerts tab shows individual alerts that triggered the incident, not consolidated affected entities.

Question 16

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that is linked to a hybrid Azure AD tenant. You need to identify all the changes made to Domain Admins group during the past 30 days. What should you use?

  • A. the Modifications of sensitive groups report in Microsoft Defender for Identity
  • B. the identity security posture assessment in Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps
  • C. the Azure Active Directory Provisioning Analysis workbook
  • D. the Overview settings of Insider risk management
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

The Modifications of sensitive groups report in Microsoft Defender for Identity specifically tracks and reports on changes made to security-sensitive groups like Domain Admins within a specified timeframe. This is the dedicated feature for monitoring administrative group changes in hybrid Azure AD environments.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. Identity security posture assessment focuses on security configuration and risk posture, not group membership changes.
  • C. Azure AD Provisioning Analysis workbook tracks provisioning operations, not group modifications.
  • D. Insider risk management focuses on user behavior and data exfiltration, not administrative group changes.

Question 17

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. The subscription uses Microsoft 365 Defender and has data loss prevention (DLP) policies that have aggregated alerts configured. You need to identify the impacted entities in an aggregated alert. What should you review in the DLP alert management dashboard of the Microsoft 365 compliance center?

  • A. the Events tab of the alert
  • B. the Sensitive Info Types tab of the alert
  • C. Management log
  • D. the Details tab of the alert
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

The Events tab within a DLP aggregated alert in the compliance center displays all individual events and affected entities that comprise the aggregated alert. This tab shows the detailed breakdown of which users, files, and locations were involved in the DLP violation.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. Sensitive Info Types tab shows the types of sensitive data detected, not the impacted entities.
  • C. Management log is a separate audit log, not part of individual alert review.
  • D. Details tab shows summary information but Events tab is where individual entity-level details are displayed.

Question 18

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Microsoft 365 Defender. You plan to create a hunting query from Microsoft Defender. You need to create a custom tracked query that will be used to assess the threat status of the subscription. From the Microsoft 365 Defender portal, which page should you use to create the query?

  • A. Threat analytics
  • B. Advanced Hunting
  • C. Explorer
  • D. Policies & rules
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

Advanced Hunting in Microsoft 365 Defender is the dedicated page where you create custom hunting queries using KQL (Kusto Query Language). This feature allows you to build and save tracked queries for ongoing threat assessment and hunting activities across your environment.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Threat analytics provides pre-built threat intelligence reports, not custom query creation.
  • C. Explorer is for investigating specific content and activities, not for creating custom hunting queries.
  • D. Policies & rules is for configuring security policies, not for query creation.

Question 19

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. You need to add threat indicators for all the IP addresses in a range of 171.23.34.32- 171.23.34.63. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you do in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal?

  • A. Create an import file that contains the individual IP addresses in the range. Select Import and import the file.
  • B. Create an import file that contains the IP address of 171.23.34.32/27. Select Import and import the file.
  • C. Select Add indicator and set the IP address to 171.23.34.32-171.23.34.63.
  • D. Select Add indicator and set the IP address to 171.23.34.32/27.
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

The CIDR notation 171.23.34.32/27 efficiently represents the entire IP range 171.23.34.32-171.23.34.63 (32 addresses) with a single entry. Importing this via file using CIDR notation minimizes administrative effort compared to manually entering 32 individual IPs or using the single-entry Add indicator interface for each address.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. While functional, creating a file with 32 individual IP addresses requires more administrative effort than using CIDR notation.
  • C. The Add indicator interface does not accept IP ranges in hyphenated format; CIDR notation is required.
  • D. The Add indicator interface is designed for single indicator entry, not efficient bulk range addition; file import with CIDR is the proper approach.

Question 20

You have an Azure subscription that uses Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. You need to ensure that you can allow or block a user-specified range of IP addressed and URLs. What should you enable first in the Advanced features from the Endpoints Settings in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal?

  • A. custom network indicators
  • B. live response for servers
  • C. endpoint detection and response (EDR) in block mode
  • D. web content filtering
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

Custom network indicators is the Advanced feature that must be enabled first to allow or block user-specified ranges of IP addresses and URLs in Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. This feature is specifically designed for managing custom indicators of compromise (IoCs) including IP ranges and URL patterns.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. Live response for servers is used for remote investigation and remediation, not for blocking IP/URL ranges.
  • C. EDR in block mode provides behavioral blocking but doesn't manage custom IP/URL indicators.
  • D. Web content filtering controls access to websites by category, not custom IP/URL ranges.

Question 21

Your company has an on-premises network that uses Microsoft Defender for Identity. The Microsoft Secure Score for the company includes a security assessment associated with unsecure Kerberos delegation. You need remediate the security risk. What should you do?

  • A. Disable legacy protocols on the computers listed as exposed entities.
  • B. Enforce LDAP signing on the computers listed as exposed entities.
  • C. Modify the properties of the computer objects listed as exposed entities.
  • D. Install the Local Administrator Password Solution (LAPS) extension on the computers listed as exposed entities.
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: C

Unsecure Kerberos delegation is remediated by modifying the properties of the exposed computer objects to disable unconstrained or constrained delegation settings. This involves changing the delegation configuration at the Active Directory object level for the affected computers.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Disabling legacy protocols addresses different security risks, not Kerberos delegation.
  • B. LDAP signing remediation addresses LDAP security, not Kerberos delegation issues.
  • D. LAPS extension addresses local administrator password management, not Kerberos delegation.

Question 22

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Microsoft 365 Defender. A remediation action for an automated investigation quarantines a file across multiple devices. You need to mark the file as safe and remove the file from quarantine on the devices. What should you use in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal?

  • A. From the History tab in the Action center, revert the actions.
  • B. From the investigation page, review the AIR processes.
  • C. From Quarantine from the Review page, modify the rules.
  • D. From Threat tracker, review the queries.
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

The Action center's History tab in Microsoft 365 Defender portal allows you to review and revert automated investigation and response actions, including quarantine actions, marking files as safe and removing them from quarantine across multiple devices.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. The investigation page reviews AIR processes but doesn't provide the interface to revert quarantine actions.
  • C. The Quarantine review page manages quarantined items but reverting requires the Action center History.
  • D. Threat tracker reviews query results for threat identification, not remediation reversion.

Question 23

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that uses Microsoft 365 Defender. You need to review new attack techniques discovered by Microsoft and identify vulnerable resources in the subscription. The solution must minimize administrative effort. Which blade should you use in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal?

  • A. Advanced hunting
  • B. Threat analytics
  • C. Incidents & alerts
  • D. Learning hub
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

Threat analytics in Microsoft 365 Defender provides information about new attack techniques discovered by Microsoft, tracks vulnerable resources in your subscription, and minimizes administrative effort by providing consolidated analysis and remediation guidance in one blade.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Advanced hunting requires manual query writing and is not optimized for identifying vulnerable resources.
  • C. Incidents & alerts shows detected threats but doesn't focus on new techniques or systematic vulnerability identification.
  • D. Learning hub provides training resources, not threat analysis or vulnerability identification.

Question 24

CASE STUDY This is a case study. Case studies are not timed separately. You can use as much exam time as you would like to complete each case. However, there may be additional case studies and sections on this exam. You must manage your time to ensure that you are able to complete all questions included on this exam in the time provided. To answer the questions included in a case study, you will need to reference information that is provided in the case study. Case studies might contain exhibits and other resources that provide more information about the scenario that is described in the case study. Each question is independent of the other questions in this case study. At the end of this case study, a review screen will appear. This screen allows you to review your answers and to make changes before you move to the next section of the exam. After you begin a new section, you cannot return to this section. To start the case study - To display the first question in this case study, click the Next button. Use the buttons in the left pane to explore the content of the case study before you answer the questions. Clicking these buttons displays information such as business requirements, existing environment, and problem statements. If the case study has an All Information tab, note that the information displayed is identical to the information displayed on the subsequent tabs. When you are ready to answer a question, click the Question button to return to the question. Overview Fabrikam, Inc. is a financial services company. The company has branch offices in New York, London, and Singapore. Fabrikam has remote users located across the globe. The remote users access company resources, including cloud resources, by using a VPN connection to a branch office. Existing Environment Identity Environment The network contains an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest named fabrikam.com that syncs with an Azure AD tenant named fabrikam.com. To sync the forest, Fabrikam uses Azure AD Connect with pass-through authentication enabled and password hash synchronization disabled. The fabrikam.com forest contains two global groups named Group1 and Group2. Microsoft 365 Environment - All the users at Fabrikam are assigned a Microsoft 365 E5 license and an Azure Active Directory Premium Plan 2 license. Fabrikam implements Microsoft Defender for Identity and Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps and enables log collectors. Azure Environment Fabrikam has an Azure subscription that contains the resources shown in the following table. Amazon Web Services (AWS) Environment Fabrikam has an Amazon Web Services (AWS) account named Account1. Account1 contains 100 Amazon Elastic Compute Cloud (EC2) instances that run a custom Windows Server 2022. The image includes Microsoft SQL Server 2019 and does NOT have any agents installed. Current Issues When the users use the VPN connections, Microsoft 365 Defender raises a high volume of impossible travel alerts that are false positives. Defender for Identity raises a high volume of Suspected DCSync attack alerts that are false positives. Requirements Planned changes - Fabrikam plans to implement the following services: • Microsoft Defender for Cloud • Microsoft Sentinel Business Requirements Fabrikam identifies the following business requirements: • Use the principle of least privilege, whenever possible. • Minimize administrative effort. Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps Requirements Fabrikam identifies the following Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps requirements: • Ensure that impossible travel alert policies are based on the previous activities of each user. • Reduce the amount of impossible travel alerts that are false positives. Microsoft Defender for Identity Requirements Minimize the administrative effort required to investigate the false positive alerts. Microsoft Defender for Cloud Requirements Fabrikam identifies the following Microsoft Defender for Cloud requirements: • Ensure that the members of Group2 can modify security policies. • Ensure that the members of Group1 can assign regulatory compliance policy initiatives at the Azure subscription level. • Automate the deployment of the Azure Connected Machine agent for Azure Arc- enabled servers to the existing and future resources of Account1. • Minimize the administrative effort required to investigate the false positive alerts. Microsoft Sentinel Requirements Fabrikam identifies the following Microsoft Sentinel requirements: • Query for NXDOMAIN DNS requests from the last seven days by using built-in Advanced Security Information Model (ASIM) unifying parsers. • From AWS EC2 instances, collect Windows Security event log entries that include local group membership changes. • Identify anomalous activities of Azure AD users by using User and Entity Behavior Analytics (UEBA). • Evaluate the potential impact of compromised Azure AD user credentials by using UEBA. • Ensure that App1 is available for use in Microsoft Sentinel automation rules. • Identify the mean time to triage for incidents generated during the last 30 days. • Identify the mean time to close incidents generated during the last 30 days. • Ensure that the members of Group1 can create and run playbooks. • Ensure that the members of Group1 can manage analytics rules. • Run hunting queries on Pool1 by using Jupyter notebooks. • Ensure that the members of Group2 can manage incidents. • Maximize the performance of data queries. • Minimize the amount of collected data. You need to minimize the effort required to investigate the Microsoft Defender for Identity false positive alerts. What should you review?

  • A. the status update time
  • B. the resolution method of the source computer
  • C. the alert status
  • D. the certainty of the source computer
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: D

To minimize administrative effort in investigating false positive alerts in Microsoft Defender for Identity, reviewers should focus on the certainty score of the source computer. The certainty metric indicates the confidence level of the detection and helps security teams quickly identify which alerts are more likely to be false positives versus genuine threats. By reviewing the certainty of the source computer, administrators can prioritize investigations and filter out low-confidence alerts without expending effort on obvious false positives, thereby reducing the administrative burden.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Status update time does not help determine whether an alert is a false positive; it only shows when the alert was last modified.
  • B. The resolution method of the source computer is not a primary indicator of whether a Defender for Identity alert is false; it relates to DNS resolution, not alert confidence.
  • C. Alert status (open, closed, in progress) describes the investigation state but does not help identify whether the alert itself is a false positive based on detection confidence.

Question 25

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that uses Microsoft Defender 365. You need to ensure that you can investigate threats by using data in the unified audit log of Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps. What should you configure first?

  • A. the User enrichment settings
  • B. the Azure connector
  • C. the Office 365 connector
  • D. the Automatic log upload settings
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: C

The Office 365 connector must be configured first to enable Microsoft Defender for Cloud Apps to access and investigate threats using data from the unified audit log of Office 365 and Microsoft 365, providing visibility into cloud app activities.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. User enrichment settings enhance user data but don't enable audit log access.
  • B. The Azure connector connects Azure resources but doesn't provide Office 365 unified audit log data.
  • D. Automatic log upload settings configure log collection but require the connector to be established first.

Question 26

You have an Azure subscription that uses Microsoft Defender for Servers Plan 1 and contains a server named Server1. You enable agentless scanning. You need to prevent Server1 from being scanned. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you do?

  • A. Create an exclusion tag.
  • B. Upgrade the subscription to Defender for Servers Plan 2.
  • C. Create a governance rule.
  • D. Create an exclusion group.
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

Creating an exclusion tag is the minimal-effort solution to prevent Server1 from being scanned in agentless scanning mode. Tags can be applied to resources to exclude them from scanning without upgrading plans or creating complex governance rules.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. Upgrading to Plan 2 is unnecessary and increases costs without being the most efficient solution.
  • C. Governance rules are more complex and administrative-heavy than using exclusion tags.
  • D. Exclusion groups require more setup than simply tagging the individual server.

Question 27

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that uses Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. You need to identify any devices that triggered a malware alert and collect evidence related to the alert. The solution must ensure that you can use the results to initiate device isolation for the affected devices. What should you use in the Microsoft 365 Defender portal?

  • A. incidents
  • B. Remediation
  • C. Investigations
  • D. Advanced hunting
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

Incidents in Microsoft 365 Defender portal provide a unified view of malware alerts, automatically group related alerts, collect evidence across devices, and allow you to initiate response actions like device isolation from a central location. This is the primary interface for managing security incidents.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. Remediation is a result of investigation, not the tool for identifying devices and collecting evidence.
  • C. Investigations are detailed technical analysis but incidents provide the integrated view needed for isolation decisions.
  • D. Advanced hunting requires manual queries and is not optimized for typical alert- driven device isolation workflows.

Question 28

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Microsoft Purview and Microsoft Teams. You have a team named Team1 that has a project named Project1. You need to identify any Project1 files that were stored on the team site of Team1 between February 1, 2023, and February 10, 2023. Which KQL query should you run?

  • A. (c:c)(Project1)(date=(2023-02-01)..date=(2023-02-10))
  • B. AuditLogs | where Timestamp between (datetime(2023-02-01)..datetime(2023-02- 10)) | where FileName contains "Project1"
  • C. Project1(c:c)(date=2023-02-01..2023-02-10)
  • D. AuditLogs | where Timestamp > ago(10d) | where FileName contains "Project1"
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

AuditLogs | where Timestamp between (datetime(2023-02-01)..datetime(2023-02-10)) | where FileName contains "Project1" The correct answer uses proper KQL (Kusto Query Language) syntax for searching audit logs. Option B correctly uses the AuditLogs table with the Timestamp operator using the between function with datetime objects, which is the standard way to query audit logs in Microsoft Purview. The where clause then filters for files containing 'Project1'. The other options use incorrect syntax that doesn't conform to KQL standards.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Uses incorrect parenthetical syntax that is not valid KQL
  • C. Uses invalid KQL syntax with improper operator placement
  • D. Uses a relative time filter (ago function) instead of absolute dates, which doesn't meet the specific date range requirement

Question 29

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that uses Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. You need to create a query that will link the AlertInfo, AlertEvidence, and DeviceLogonEvents tables. The solution must return all the rows in the tables. Which operator should you use?

  • A. search *
  • B. union kind = inner
  • C. join kind = inner
  • D. evaluate hint.remote =
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

The union operator with kind=inner is correct for combining multiple tables while retaining all rows from each table. The question asks to 'link' tables and 'return all rows in the tables,' which describes a union operation rather than a join. A union operation appends rows from multiple tables with the same schema, whereas a join combines tables based on common columns, which would reduce rows based on matching criteria.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. The search operator is for searching content across tables, not for linking/combining specific tables
  • C. A join operation would only return matching rows between tables, not all rows as required
  • D. The evaluate hint.remote operator is for remote query execution and doesn't combine tables

Question 30

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains 100 Windows 10 devices. You onboard the devices to Microsoft Defender 365. You need to ensure that you can initiate remote shell connections to the onboarded devices from the Microsoft 365 Defender portal. What should you do first?

  • A. Modify the permissions for Microsoft 365 Defender.
  • B. Create a device group.
  • C. From Advanced features in the Endpoints settings of the Microsoft 365 Defender portal, enable automated investigation.
  • D. Configure role-based access control (RBAC).
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: D

Role-based access control (RBAC) must be configured first to enable users to have the necessary permissions to initiate remote shell connections from the Microsoft 365 Defender portal. RBAC determines which users can perform specific actions like remote shell sessions on managed devices. Without proper RBAC roles assigned, users won't have the capability to perform remote connections regardless of other settings.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Permissions are controlled through RBAC roles, not general permission modifications
  • B. Device groups are organizational tools but not prerequisite for remote shell capability
  • C. Automated investigation features are separate from remote shell connection capabilities

Question 31

You have a Microsoft 365 E5 subscription that contains 100 Linux devices. The devices are onboarded to Microsoft Defender 365. You need to initiate the collection of investigation packages from the devices by using the Microsoft 365 Defender portal. Which response action should you use?

  • A. Run antivirus scan
  • B. Initiate Automated Investigation
  • C. Collect investigation package
  • D. Initiate Live Response Session
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: C

The 'Collect investigation package' response action is the specific action used to gather investigation packages from devices in Microsoft 365 Defender portal. This action collects forensic data and diagnostic information from the device for investigation purposes. While Live Response can be used to interact with devices, the direct action to collect investigation packages is the dedicated 'Collect investigation package' option.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Run antivirus scan is for malware scanning, not investigation package collection
  • B. Initiate Automated Investigation starts the automated investigation process, not package collection
  • D. Live Response Session is an interactive tool; collection packages is the dedicated action for this purpose

Question 32

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Microsoft Purview. Your company has a project named Project1. You need to identify all the email messages that have the word Project1 in the subject line. The solution must search only the mailboxes of users that worked on Project1. What should you do?

  • A. Perform a user data search.
  • B. Create a records management disposition.
  • C. Perform an audit search.
  • D. Perform a content search.
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: D

Content search is the appropriate tool in Microsoft Purview to search for specific email messages by subject line across selected mailboxes. This feature allows you to specify search criteria (Project1 in subject line) and select specific user mailboxes to search, making it ideal for finding emails matching specific criteria within a defined set of mailboxes. Content search is designed for exactly this scenario of targeted email discovery.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. User data search is for exporting user data, not for searching message content
  • B. Records management disposition is for retention and disposal policies, not email search
  • C. Audit search is for tracking user and admin activities, not for searching email content

Question 33

Note: This section contains one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem. You must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. More than one solution in the set might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions in the set solve the problem. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return. As a result, these questions do not appear on the Review Screen. You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have 1,000 Windows devices that have a third-party antivirus product installed and Microsoft Defender Antivirus in passive mode. You need to ensure that the devices are protected from malicious artifacts that were undetected by the third-party antivirus product. Solution: You configure endpoint detection and response (EDR) in block mode. Does this meet the goal?

  • A. Yes
  • B. No
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

Yes, configuring EDR in block mode meets the goal. EDR in block mode allows Microsoft Defender for Endpoint to take action on malicious artifacts even when running alongside third-party antivirus in passive mode. This provides additional protection by actively blocking threats that the third-party antivirus may have missed, ensuring comprehensive coverage against undetected malicious artifacts.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. The solution does meet the stated goal of protecting against maliciously detected artifacts

Question 34

Note: This section contains one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem. You must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. More than one solution in the set might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions in the set solve the problem. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return. As a result, these questions do not appear on the Review Screen. You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have 1,000 Windows devices that have a third-party antivirus product installed and Microsoft Defender Antivirus in passive mode. You need to ensure that the devices are protected from malicious artifacts that were undetected by the third-party antivirus product. Solution: You configure Controlled folder access. Does this meet the goal?

  • A. Yes
  • B. No
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

Controlled folder access is a ransomware protection feature that prevents unauthorized apps from modifying files in protected folders. However, the goal is to protect devices from malicious artifacts undetected by third-party antivirus. Controlled folder access does not detect or prevent undetected malware; it only restricts file modifications. This does not address the core requirement of detecting and protecting against malware that bypassed the third-party solution.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Controlled folder access is a containment feature, not a detection mechanism for undetected malware.

Question 35

Note: This section contains one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem. You must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. More than one solution in the set might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions in the set solve the problem. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return. As a result, these questions do not appear on the Review Screen. You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have 1,000 Windows devices that have a third-party antivirus product installed and Microsoft Defender Antivirus in passive mode. You need to ensure that the devices are protected from malicious artifacts that were undetected by the third-party antivirus product. Solution: You enable automated investigation and response (AIR). Does this meet the goal?

  • A. Yes
  • B. No
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

Automated Investigation and Response (AIR) is a post-detection capability that investigates and remediates alerts after they are detected. It does not improve the detection of malware that was undetected by the third-party antivirus. Since Microsoft Defender is in passive mode, it does not perform active scanning or detection on the devices. AIR cannot protect against threats that are never detected in the first place.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. AIR responds to detected threats but cannot detect malware missed by the third- party solution when Defender is in passive mode.

Question 36

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Microsoft Defender XDR. You need to implement deception rules. The solution must ensure that you can limit the scope of the rules. What should you create first?

  • A. device groups
  • B. device tags
  • C. honeytoken entity tags
  • D. sensitive entity tags
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

To implement deception rules in Microsoft Defender XDR with limited scope, device tags should be created first. Device tags allow you to organize and segment devices logically, which enables scoping deception rules to specific subsets of devices. While device groups also exist, device tags provide the more granular and flexible approach for limiting the scope of deception rules across your environment.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Device groups exist but device tags provide more granular control for scoping deception rules.
  • C. Honeytoken entity tags are used for marking sensitive entities, not for scoping deception rules.
  • D. Sensitive entity tags are for marking sensitive data, not for controlling deception rule scope.

Question 37

Note: This section contains one or more sets of questions with the same scenario and problem. Each question presents a unique solution to the problem. You must determine whether the solution meets the stated goals. More than one solution in the set might solve the problem. It is also possible that none of the solutions in the set solve the problem. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return. As a result, these questions do not appear on the Review Screen. You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have 1,000 Windows devices that have a third-party antivirus product installed and Microsoft Defender Antivirus in passive mode. All Windows devices are onboarded to Microsoft Defender for Endpoint. You need to ensure that the devices are protected from malicious artifacts that were undetected by the third-party antivirus product. Solution: You enable Live Response. Does this meet the goal?

  • A. Yes
  • B. No
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

Live Response is a remote investigation and remediation tool that allows security teams to interactively investigate and respond to threats on endpoints. However, it is a reactive, forensic tool used after threats are detected. It does not proactively protect devices from undetected malware. The goal requires protection from malware that bypassed the third- party antivirus, which requires active detection capabilities, not just investigative tools.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Live Response investigates detected threats but does not protect against undetected malware artifacts.

Question 38

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You use Azure Security Center. You receive a security alert in Security Center. You need to view recommendations to resolve the alert in Security Center. Solution: From Security alerts, you select the alert, select Take Action, and then expand the Prevent future attacks section. Does this meet the goal?

  • A. Yes
  • B. No
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

The 'Prevent future attacks' section in the Take Action menu provides remediation recommendations, but the question asks about viewing recommendations to resolve the alert specifically. The correct approach involves selecting the alert and reviewing the recommendations section directly, which provides suggested actions to address the security issue. The 'Prevent future attacks' section may contain future prevention guidance but is not the primary location for resolving the current alert.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. While 'Prevent future attacks' may contain some guidance, recommendations to resolve the current alert are better found in the main recommendations section.

Question 39

You receive an alert from Azure Defender for Key Vault. You discover that the alert is generated from multiple suspicious IP addresses. You need to reduce the potential of Key Vault secrets being leaked while you investigate the issue. The solution must be implemented as soon as possible and must minimize the impact on legitimate users. What should you do first?

  • A. Modify the access control settings for the key vault.
  • B. Enable the Key Vault firewall.
  • C. Create an application security group.
  • D. Modify the access policy for the key vault.
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

Enabling the Key Vault firewall is the fastest and most appropriate first action to prevent unauthorized access from suspicious IP addresses. The firewall can be enabled immediately without detailed access policy analysis, and it allows legitimate users to continue accessing the Key Vault through authorized networks while blocking unknown sources. This provides immediate protection with minimal disruption during investigation. Modifying access policies requires more analysis; ASGs are not directly applicable to Key Vault; and modifying access control is less immediate than firewall enablement.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Modifying access control requires analysis and planning; firewall provides quicker protection.
  • C. Application security groups do not directly protect Key Vault resources.
  • D. Access policy modification is less immediate than enabling the firewall for rapid response.

Question 40

You have a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Azure Defender. You have 100 virtual machines in a resource group named RG1. You assign the Security Admin roles to a new user named SecAdmin1. You need to ensure that SecAdmin1 can apply quick fixes to the virtual machines by using Azure Defender. The solution must use the principle of least privilege. Which role should you assign to SecAdmin1?

  • A. the Security Reader role for the subscription
  • B. the Contributor for the subscription
  • C. the Contributor role for RG1
  • D. the Owner role for RG1
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: C

To apply quick fixes to virtual machines in RG1 using Azure Defender while maintaining least privilege, SecAdmin1 should be assigned the Contributor role specifically for RG1. This grants the necessary permissions to modify resources within that resource group without elevating privileges beyond the specific scope. Security Admin role alone does not provide the capability to apply quick fixes; Contributor at subscription level violates least privilege by granting broader access than needed; Owner role is excessive and violates least privilege.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Security Reader role does not permit making changes to resources.
  • B. Subscription-level Contributor violates least privilege by granting broader access than needed.
  • D. Owner role is excessive and violates the principle of least privilege.

Question 41

You create an Azure subscription named sub1. In sub1, you create a Log Analytics workspace named workspace1. You enable Azure Security Center and configure Security Center to use workspace1. You need to collect security event logs from the Azure virtual machines that report to workspace1. What should you do?

  • A. From Security Center, enable data collection
  • B. In sub1, register a provider.
  • C. From Security Center, create a Workflow automation.
  • D. In workspace1, create a workbook.
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

To collect security event logs from Azure virtual machines in Security Center, you must enable data collection from within Security Center itself. This setting configures the Log Analytics agent to gather security events from VMs and send them to the designated workspace. Registering providers or creating workbooks are not the direct mechanism for enabling security log collection.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. Registering a provider is not the mechanism for enabling security log collection in Security Center.
  • C. Workflow automation is used for automated responses to alerts, not for initial data collection configuration.
  • D. Creating a workbook is for visualizing data, not for enabling the collection of security logs.

Question 42

Your company uses Azure Security Center and Azure Defender. The security operations team at the company informs you that it does NOT receive email notifications for security alerts. What should you configure in Security Center to enable the email notifications?

  • A. Security solutions
  • B. Security policy
  • C. Pricing & settings
  • D. Security alerts
  • E. Azure Defender
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: C

Email notifications for security alerts in Security Center are configured in the 'Pricing & settings' section, specifically under the 'Email notifications' settings. This is where you specify which email addresses should receive alerts and configure notification preferences for different alert severities.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Security solutions are for third-party integrations, not notification settings.
  • B. Security policy relates to compliance and enforcement rules, not alert notifications.
  • D. Security alerts is where you view alerts, not where you configure notification delivery.
  • E. Azure Defender is the service providing detections, not where notification settings are configured.

Question 43

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You use Azure Security Center. You receive a security alert in Security Center. You need to view recommendations to resolve the alert in Security Center. Solution: From Regulatory compliance, you download the report. Does this meet the goal?

  • A. Yes
  • B. No
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

Downloading a report from Regulatory compliance does not provide the specific recommendations to resolve a security alert. Regulatory compliance reports show compliance posture against standards, while alert-specific recommendations are found directly in the alert details or through the Security recommendations section. This approach does not meet the stated goal.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. This solution does not lead to viewing recommendations for resolving the specific security alert.

Question 44

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You use Azure Security Center. You receive a security alert in Security Center. You need to view recommendations to resolve the alert in Security Center. Solution: From Security alerts, you select the alert, select Take Action, and then expand the Mitigate the threat section. Does this meet the goal?

  • A. Yes
  • B. No
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

When you select a security alert in Security Center and choose 'Take Action', you can expand the 'Mitigate the threat' section which contains specific recommendations and steps to resolve the alert. This is the correct method to view recommendations directly associated with the security alert.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. This solution accurately describes the correct process for viewing alert-specific remediation recommendations.

Question 45

You have an Azure subscription that has Azure Defender enabled for all supported resource types. You need to configure the continuous export of high-severity alerts to enable their retrieval from a third-party security information and event management (SIEM) solution. To which service should you export the alerts?

  • A. Azure Cosmos DB
  • B. Azure Event Grid
  • C. Azure Event Hubs
  • D. Azure Data Lake
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: C

Azure Event Hubs is the appropriate service for continuous export of Security Center alerts to third-party SIEM solutions. Event Hubs provides real-time data streaming capabilities that allow SIEM systems to consume alerts as they are generated, making it ideal for security operations centers that need immediate access to threat intelligence.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Azure Cosmos DB is a NoSQL database, not designed for real-time alert streaming to SIEM systems.
  • B. Azure Event Grid is for event-driven architecture but is not the standard mechanism for SIEM integration.
  • D. Azure Data Lake is a data storage solution, not designed for real-time alert export to external systems.

Question 46

You are responsible for responding to Azure Defender for Key Vault alerts. During an investigation of an alert, you discover unauthorized attempts to access a key vault from a Tor exit node. What should you configure to mitigate the threat?

  • A. Key Vault firewalls and virtual networks
  • B. Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) permissions
  • C. role-based access control (RBAC) for the key vault
  • D. the access policy settings of the key vault
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

To mitigate unauthorized access attempts from suspicious sources like Tor exit nodes, you should configure Key Vault firewalls and virtual networks. These network-level controls restrict access to the Key Vault based on IP addresses and network locations, preventing malicious actors from reaching the vault even if they have credentials.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. Azure AD permissions govern authentication but do not block network-level attacks from specific IP ranges.
  • C. RBAC controls what authenticated users can do but does not prevent access from unauthorized network locations.
  • D. Access policy settings define permissions for authenticated principals but do not restrict access based on source IP address or network location.

Question 47

You have an Azure subscription that contains a Log Analytics workspace. You need to enable just-in-time (JIT) VM access and network detections for Azure resources. Where should you enable Azure Defender?

  • A. at the subscription level
  • B. at the workspace level
  • C. at the resource level
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

Azure Defender must be enabled at the subscription level to provide JIT VM access and network detections across all Azure resources in that subscription. Enabling at the workspace or resource level would not provide comprehensive coverage of these features across the subscription.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. Enabling at the workspace level only affects Log Analytics workspace-related resources, not JIT and network detections.
  • C. Enabling at individual resource level is not practical and does not provide the subscription-wide coverage needed for JIT and network detections.

Question 48

You use Azure Security Center. You receive a security alert in Security Center. You need to view recommendations to resolve the alert in Security Center. What should you do?

  • A. From Security alerts, select the alert, select Take Action, and then expand the Prevent future attacks section.
  • B. From Security alerts, select Take Action, and then expand the Mitigate the threat section.
  • C. From Regulatory compliance, download the report.
  • D. From Recommendations, download the CSV report.
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

To view recommendations for resolving a security alert in Azure Security Center, you select the specific alert from Security alerts, then click 'Take Action', and expand the 'Prevent future attacks' section which contains the remediation recommendations. This is the standard workflow for addressing alerts in Security Center.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. Take Action doesn't have a 'Mitigate the threat' section; the correct section is 'Prevent future attacks'.
  • C. Regulatory compliance reports show compliance posture, not specific alert remediation steps.
  • D. Downloading a CSV report from Recommendations doesn't help resolve a specific alert.

Question 49

You have a suppression rule in Azure Security Center for 10 virtual machines that are used for testing. The virtual machines run Windows Server. You are troubleshooting an issue on the virtual machines. In Security Center, you need to view the alerts generated by the virtual machines during the last five days. What should you do?

  • A. Change the rule expiration date of the suppression rule.
  • B. Change the state of the suppression rule to Disabled.
  • C. Modify the filter for the Security alerts page.
  • D. View the Windows event logs on the virtual machines.
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: B

To view alerts that are currently suppressed by a suppression rule, you must change the state of the suppression rule to 'Disabled'. This will temporarily deactivate the rule and allow the suppressed alerts to appear again in Security Center so you can troubleshoot the testing virtual machines.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • A. Changing the expiration date doesn't immediately show the alerts; the rule would still be active.
  • C. Modifying filters on the Security alerts page won't bypass an active suppression rule.
  • D. Windows event logs are a separate troubleshooting mechanism and won't show Security Center alerts.

Question 50

You create an Azure subscription. You enable Azure Defender for the subscription. You need to use Azure Defender to protect on-premises computers. What should you do on the on-premises computers?

  • A. Install the Log Analytics agent.
  • B. Install the Dependency agent.
  • C. Configure the Hybrid Runbook Worker role.
  • D. Install the Connected Machine agent.
Show answer and explanation ▾

Correct answer: A

To protect on-premises computers with Azure Defender, you must install the Log Analytics agent on those machines. The agent enables data collection and communication with Azure Defender for threat detection and protection. This is the foundational requirement for on-premises machine protection in Azure Defender.

Why the other options are wrong:

  • B. The Dependency agent is used for application dependency mapping, not for Defender protection.
  • C. Hybrid Runbook Worker is used for automation, not for security protection.
  • D. The Connected Machine agent enables Azure Arc integration but doesn't directly provide Defender capabilities without the Log Analytics agent.

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